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Aaron Lercher

Do Buchanan and Tullock ever treat property rights as needing any sort of explanation or justification in their theory? Or do they take property rights for granted, and then investigate which social arrangements would receive unanimous consent in dealing with property?

Does Spinoza have a theory of property? If not, can one infer anything from that omission about property in Spinoza's conception of a state that is aligned with nature?

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Here's a link to my past blogging (and discussions involving me) at: New APPS.


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